Shaykh Yaqoubi says al-Shadhili conversed with God?

it is common sense. by default any such statement by pious and shariah-abiding people will be taken as a dream or ilham. and will be refuted and rejected ONLY if they claim this to be similar to prophets conversing with Allah ta'ala in the manner of waHy.

saying: "conversed" with God is also similar. see, i can ask Allah - so can you. "o Allah, why this?" [not as a complaint but for enlightenment]. nobody says this is impossible.

as for the "reply" it can be through an inspiration or "hatif" (when one hears a supernatural voice) or sees in a dream that someone tells them or any other manner. as long as this inspiration does not oppose the shariah, we have no problem with it. Allah ta'ala can choose to speak to His slaves as He wishes.

it becomes a problem only when this is cited to claim prophethood or proof of some hukm or whatever.

sahih bukhari, 3689:





Allah ta'ala knows best.

 

Thank you. Just that it wasn't mentioned in the talk if it was a dream or ilham but instead just said "he himself conversed with God and asked God" - is using wording like that appropriate? And are there examples of wordings used like this in our books without clarifying it was ilham or dreams? @abu Hasan

JazakAllah Khayr

 

it is understood to be either ilham or in a dream or a vision.

ibn abbad al-shafiyi (not rundi) mentioned this in his mafakhir:





the passive voice [qeela li] indicates that it was either ilham or in a dream.

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shaykh sawi in his gloss on sh. kharidah of dardir cites this via ibn abbad:





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not something you should get hung up on.

wa billahit'tawfiq.

 

Can anybody help @Aqdas?

 

Link above at 36 mins it's mentioned that Shaykh Abu al-Hasan al-Shadhili conversed with God in terms of why he was given the name Shadhiii.

No mention of ilham or true dreams is mentioned when narrating the story. Is this type of direct communication possible between Allah and the Awliya Allah?