Yes. Jazak Allahu Khairan for the answer. Also, there was a discussion about argument made by Imam al-Ghazzali: https://x.com/fahd_ibn_ala/status/1755063291653546403 Did other scholars agree with the argument made by Imam al-Ghazzali about this? Can it be proven from the Quran definitively (in terms of its dalalah) that a Nabi is not higher than a Rasul?
even though tafsirs of both verses mention inter alia that rusul are superior to nabi (every rasul is a nabi - and not vice versa), i don't think it is definitive proof of superiority of rusul. also, in the statement: "every rasul is a nabi" the assumption is that we are talking of humans. because, there can be al-rusul al-mala'ikah /angel-messengers; but anbiya are all men. in that case, rasul-malak (angel-messenger) is not a nabiy. see surah fatir, verse 35:1: ٱلۡحَمۡدُ لِلَّهِ فَاطِرِ ٱلسَّمَـٰوَ ٰتِ وَٱلۡأَرۡضِ جَاعِلِ ٱلۡمَلَـٰۤىِٕكَةِ رُسُلًا === while it is a possible suggestion that the order of words indicate superiority, there are other verses of the qur'an which can be cited as proving superiority of rusul over anbiya because the word rasul was mentioned first. for example: surah mariyam 19:54 وَٱذۡكُرۡ فِی ٱلۡكِتَـٰبِ إِسۡمَـٰعِیلَۚ إِنَّهُۥ كَانَ صَادِقَ ٱلۡوَعۡدِ وَكَانَ رَسُولࣰا نَّبِیࣰّا surah al-a'araf 7:157 ٱلَّذِینَ یَتَّبِعُونَ ٱلرَّسُولَ ٱلنَّبِیَّ ٱلۡأُمِّیَّ ٱلَّذِی یَجِدُونَهُۥ مَكۡتُوبًا عِندَهُمۡ فِی ٱلتَّوۡرَىٰةِ وَٱلۡإِنجِیلِ surah al-a'araf 7:158 فَـَٔامِنُوا۟ بِٱللَّهِ وَرَسُولِهِ ٱلنَّبِیِّ ٱلۡأُمِّیِّ ٱلَّذِی یُؤۡمِنُ بِٱللَّهِ وَكَلِمَـٰتِهِۦ وَٱتَّبِعُوهُ لَعَلَّكُمۡ تَهۡتَدُونَ surah mariyam 19:51 وَٱذۡكُرۡ فِی ٱلۡكِتَـٰبِ مُوسَىٰۤۚ إِنَّهُۥ كَانَ مُخۡلَصࣰا وَكَانَ رَسُولࣰا نَّبِیࣰّا we know that hazrat musa alayhis salam and sayyiduna RasulAllah sallALlahu alayhi wa sallam were both rasul and nabiy. but all of this will be called into question with this verse, where siddiq is preceded by nabi - going by the logic of: order of words indicating superiority, siddiq would be superior to the nabiy! surah mariyam, 19:41 وَٱذۡكُرۡ فِی ٱلۡكِتَـٰبِ إِبۡرَ ٰهِیمَۚ إِنَّهُۥ كَانَ صِدِّیقࣰا نَّبِیًّا surah mariyam, 19:52 وَٱذۡكُرۡ فِی ٱلۡكِتَـٰبِ إِدۡرِیسَۚ إِنَّهُۥ كَانَ صِدِّیقࣰا نَّبِیࣰّا and this verse would mean that rusul-malayikah are superior to rusul-ins, whereas the ijmaa is the opposite: surah hajj: 22:75 ٱللَّهُ یَصۡطَفِی مِنَ ٱلۡمَلَـٰۤىِٕكَةِ رُسُلࣰا وَمِنَ ٱلنَّاسِۚ Allah ta'ala knows best. ps: imam razi notes that mutazilah contend that every rasul is nabi and vice versa; whereas ahl al-sunnah say that every rasul is nabiy, but vice versa is not true. (i.e. not every nabi is a rasul).
Is it true that in Quran 22:52, Allah is favoring rasuls (messengers) over nabis (prophets) through taqdim (mentioning one thing before another)? Also, can it be also said about Quran 4:69?